Does the New Testament Lie About Prophecy?

Michael Jones of Inspiring Philosophy

For more sources on this topic, clear on this article.

A common argument many Christians make is that Jesus fulfilled hundreds of prophecies from the Old Testament. This sounds like a powerful case for the truth of Christianity. But when we look at some of these prophecies, we encounter problems.

For example, when Matthew was speaking of Jesus’s family leaving Egypt, he wrote, “This was to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet, ‘Out of Egypt I called my son.'” 

  • “and was there until the death of Herod, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying, “Out of Egypt I called My Son.” – Matthew 2:15 (NKJV)

This comes from the book of Hosea. But when we look at the original context, we realize it’s not a prophecy at all, it’s a reference to Israel’s exodus from Egypt.

  • “When Israel was a child, I loved him, And out of Egypt I called My son. 2 As they called them, So they went from them; They sacrificed to the Baals, And burned incense to carved images.” – Hosea 11:1-2 (NKJV)

Similar issues arise when we look at other passages that New Testament authors said were fulfilled in Jesus.

  • 17 Then was fulfilled what was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying: 18 “A voice was heard in Ramah, Lamentation, weeping, and great mourning, Rachel weeping for her children, Refusing to be comforted, Because they are no more.” – Matt. 2:7-18 (NKJV)
  • “For I say to you that this which is written must still be accomplished in Me: ‘And He was numbered with the transgressors.’ For the things concerning Me have an end.” – Luke 22:37
  • 38 that the word of Isaiah the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spoke: “Lord, who has believed our report? And to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?” – John 12:38 (NKJV)

Some have argued this is evidence the New Testament authors were being deceitful, attempting to make Jesus into Israel’s Messiah by misrepresenting various Old Testament passages.

However, as is often the case, this is a misreading of Scripture through modern lenses. It is true that many of the alleged prophecies are not really predictions about a coming Messiah but the New Testament authors were not pretending they were. Instead, they had a different understanding of what it meant to “fulfill” the Scriptures.

As we’ve mentioned, often we read in the New Testament that Christ “fulfilled the Scriptures,” and we assume this refers only to literal prophecies from the Hebrew Bible. In John 13:18, Jesus says:

“I am not speaking of all of you; I know whom I have chosen. But the Scripture will be fulfilled, ‘He who ate my bread has lifted his heel against me.’”

He is quoting Psalm 41. But when we go to that Psalm, it is not a prophecy about a coming Messiah it is a lament of David. So how could Jesus fulfill this Scripture if it’s not a prophecy about Him?

We need to realize the Greek word for “fulfill” (plēroō) has a much broader meaning than our English word. It does not only refer to literal prophecies.

Paul Copan says:

-Paul Copan, “Did the New Testament Writers Misquote the Old Testament?” Enrichment Journal.

When we read in Matthew, “This was to fulfill what was spoken through the prophet,” Matthew means this was to bring to completion what was spoken by the prophet. Fulfillment does not exclude prediction, but it presents a much broader, richer understanding. We should think more in terms of foreshadowing or prefiguring rather than predicting.

This is an important point. When the New Testament authors spoke of Christ fulfilling the Scriptures, they were not necessarily trying to say there were specific prophecies about Jesus. Sometimes that was the case but more often than not, they were speaking of the Hebrew Scriptures foreshadowing or prefiguring Jesus.

Craig Blomberg notes:

Typology comes from the Greek word for pattern or type. Basically, Christians would look at something Jesus did and look for a pattern in the Old Testament to match it. Thus, they would argue Jesus fulfilled the Scriptures by reenacting important passages to show they were foreshadowing Him.

Craig Blomberg puts it like this:

R.T. France similarly says:

Basically, Jesus, being Israel’s Messiah, fulfilled the Scriptures by reenacting them through His life and deeds. But because He was sinless, He lived out Israel’s history perfectly.

  • Israel failed God in the wilderness for 40 years but Jesus defeated Satan in the wilderness after 40 days.
  • Jesus kept the Torah perfectly whereas Israel failed to do so.
  • Jesus became a true light to the nations whereas Israel failed to do so.

He was demonstrating that He was the embodiment of Israel perfected. Thus, Old Testament passages were treated as anticipations pointing to the Messiah who would be Israel perfected. Therefore, Jesus fulfilled them in a typological sense.

R.T. France explains further:

The New Testament authors were aware of this and simply looked for patterns in the Old Testament to show Jesus typologically fulfilled them. He lived out the Scriptures perfectly and therefore fulfilled them. The nation of Israel never did due to their sin and so could not truly fulfill the Scriptures.

So, there is no issue here once we understand the cultural context. The New Testament authors were saying Jesus fulfilled all the Scriptures, not just the prophecies about the coming Messiah. Many of the passages they quote are not about a coming Messiah, but they were never considered a problem, because all the Scriptures needed to be fulfilled. Therefore, all the Scriptures were thought to foreshadow the coming Messiah.

John Wenham says:


Response: Within the broader Lukian context in Luke 18:31, we see this patter broken when referring to the written scriptures of the OT when referring to Jesus Christ. Rather he is summarizing the prophets. Therefore the argument is baased on a lie and can easily be refuted. The obvious answer is what has been stated above and the relevant information in this article. Muslims are being fallcious when making this argument and made up conditions. What criteria are muslims using that in every instance when Jesus says “it is written” does have to be a direct quotation? This is just an ad hoc rule that they make up. When they are committing the presentisim fallcacy,

Within Luke’s broader narrative, the claim collapses immediately. In Luke 18:31, Jesus refers to “everything written by the prophets about the Son of Man,” yet He is not quoting any specific Old Testament verse He is summarizing the prophetic witness as a whole. This alone breaks the alleged pattern.

Therefore, the Muslim argument rests on a false premise and is easily refuted. As demonstrated above, Jesus’ use of “it is written” does not always introduce a direct quotation; sometimes it signals a thematic summary of Scripture.

Muslim apologists impose an ad hoc, made-up rule:

“Every time Jesus says ‘it is written,’ it must be a verbatim quotation.”

But what criteria are they using? None. It is simply invented.

They are also committing the presentism fallacy reading modern expectations of citation and quotation back into 1st-century Jewish interpretive practice, which did not function according to modern standards.

4 thoughts on “Does the New Testament Lie About Prophecy?”

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